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Results for "Leviticus 21:7"

Leviticus 21:7

Definition: They shall not take a wife [that is] a whore, or profane; neither shall they take a woman put away from her husband: for he [is] holy unto his God.


Explanation: Okay, let's break down this verse from Leviticus 21:7. It’s a really important and somewhat serious rule set up in the Old Testament to protect people and relationships. Here’s a simple explanation: Essentially, this verse says that certain people are forbidden from entering into marriage or having any kind of romantic relationship with others. Let's unpack it piece by piece: “They shall not take a wife [that is] a whore, or profane;” – This means they can’t be married to someone considered “whore” or “profane.” Think of it like this: a whore is a woman who has engaged in immoral or lustful behavior. "Profane" refers to something that is not holy or sacred. “neither shall they take a woman put away from her husband:” – This means they can't be married to someone who is already married to another person. It’s about respecting the existing commitment and relationships. It’s a safeguard against disrupting family structures. “for he [is] holy unto his God.” - This is the crucial part. It emphasizes that the person being forbidden from marriage is holy – meaning they are dedicated to God and must be in alignment with His will. Their relationship is seen as a sacred one, and God demands this purity. What’s the point of this rule? The Bible says this rule was established to: Protect families: It's a way for God to ensure strong family bonds and prevent disruptions caused by relationships that are considered impure or disrespectful. Maintain holiness: It reinforces the idea of God as the ultimate authority and creator, and that His creation (human relationships) must be aligned with His will. In short, this verse is a reminder of God’s standards for relationships and emphasizes the importance of purity and faithfulness. --- Do you want me to: Explain any of these concepts in more detail? Give you an example of how this rule might have been applied historically? Discuss the significance of this verse within the broader context of Jewish law and tradition?